HiddenMickey
03-30-2007, 01:07 PM
Hi
I am using the ASM for MFE preparation, and I am trying to work out how the B-S Equation was derived (Pg 175 of ASM) and i just couldn't figure it out.
I thought in the Profit formula (page 171 of ASM), the interest portion has [exp(rh)-1], how come it is showing exp(rh) only in the derivation of the formula? It would be great if someone can shed some light on this.
Thx :oops:
I am using the ASM for MFE preparation, and I am trying to work out how the B-S Equation was derived (Pg 175 of ASM) and i just couldn't figure it out.
I thought in the Profit formula (page 171 of ASM), the interest portion has [exp(rh)-1], how come it is showing exp(rh) only in the derivation of the formula? It would be great if someone can shed some light on this.
Thx :oops: