Nut
05-03-2011, 05:35 PM
I noticed one of the TIA solutions used
"Projected Fixed Expense per exposure (with trend)" / "Projected Trended Premium at Current Rate Level."
While I think this removes the trend and rate bias, I "think" we can just take
Fixed Expense Prov = "Fixed Expenses / Premium" -- at least from what I read from Werner page 135. Is this correct?
I'm confused because I have seen solutions go both ways. In the appendix, pg A-21 of Werner, they just take Fix Expense/Premium. Same with TIA Quiz 6#1 (although there was enough info to do it the other way using trending and on-level premiums). And, in the TIA Quiz 10 Q1, they project the Fixed expense (as would in the Exposure based method) and then divide it by the Projected on-level trended premium.
Many Thanks for the last second clarification!
"Projected Fixed Expense per exposure (with trend)" / "Projected Trended Premium at Current Rate Level."
While I think this removes the trend and rate bias, I "think" we can just take
Fixed Expense Prov = "Fixed Expenses / Premium" -- at least from what I read from Werner page 135. Is this correct?
I'm confused because I have seen solutions go both ways. In the appendix, pg A-21 of Werner, they just take Fix Expense/Premium. Same with TIA Quiz 6#1 (although there was enough info to do it the other way using trending and on-level premiums). And, in the TIA Quiz 10 Q1, they project the Fixed expense (as would in the Exposure based method) and then divide it by the Projected on-level trended premium.
Many Thanks for the last second clarification!