Al
05-09-2002, 10:20 AM
Hi,
A few of us that are taking course 1 are stumped on a question in the Averbach study manual - Practice Test 1, question 5.
Looking at the solution, we cannot derive how they came up with that simple of a formula to solve the problem. Can anyone help explain how they came up with this?
The problem is:
Let X and Y have a bivariate normal distribution with mean of x and y = 0 and variance x = 1 and variance y = 2, and correlation coefficient = 1/2. What is the conditional variance of Y, given X = x?
The solution is:
The conditional variance of Y given X = x, i.e., Var[YlX=x) = var(1-p^2) = 2[1-(1/2)^2] = 3/2.
A few of us that are taking course 1 are stumped on a question in the Averbach study manual - Practice Test 1, question 5.
Looking at the solution, we cannot derive how they came up with that simple of a formula to solve the problem. Can anyone help explain how they came up with this?
The problem is:
Let X and Y have a bivariate normal distribution with mean of x and y = 0 and variance x = 1 and variance y = 2, and correlation coefficient = 1/2. What is the conditional variance of Y, given X = x?
The solution is:
The conditional variance of Y given X = x, i.e., Var[YlX=x) = var(1-p^2) = 2[1-(1/2)^2] = 3/2.