jennyzhang
03-28-2005, 04:23 PM
Could anyone explain why "the inverse exponential has a heavier tail than the exponetial distribution"?
I know that it is correct. But I don't see how we could get the conclusion from "moments test." Their moments have similar domains.
Thanks in advance.
I know that it is correct. But I don't see how we could get the conclusion from "moments test." Their moments have similar domains.
Thanks in advance.