Rice
04-15-2005, 02:11 PM
In step 2 of Appendix A, they illustrate an adjustment for managed care, where the manged care reduces the cost of each claim by 50%, and they use a $50,000 deductible. They make two points:
The percent of managed care claims in excess of $50,000 is equal to the percent of claim in the prior distribution in excess of $100,000. This makes sense.
However, they also say that the cost of managed care claims which are greater than $50,000 is exactly 50% of the cost of the claims from the prior distribution which are greater than $100,000.
In the second point, aren't they reducing the cost by a factor of 4? Shouldn't the cost of managed care claims greater than $50,000 be equal to the cost of claims from the prior distribution which are greater than $100,000?
The percent of managed care claims in excess of $50,000 is equal to the percent of claim in the prior distribution in excess of $100,000. This makes sense.
However, they also say that the cost of managed care claims which are greater than $50,000 is exactly 50% of the cost of the claims from the prior distribution which are greater than $100,000.
In the second point, aren't they reducing the cost by a factor of 4? Shouldn't the cost of managed care claims greater than $50,000 be equal to the cost of claims from the prior distribution which are greater than $100,000?