retaker
10-23-2002, 02:34 PM
Just a quick question. In the book I don't believe the Price Earnings ratio is ever explicitly defined. Is it always P_t/ E_t+1 instead of P_t/ E_t ?
Brealy and Myers is vague on this.
EPS is earnings per share. There is a footnote on page 76 that implies it should be future, but I think the practice is to use current. I actually don't know for certain. :-?
retaker
10-23-2002, 03:23 PM
I know I saw a question the other day where they wanted current price over end of year earnings.
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