SleepyBob
10-29-2002, 07:33 PM
The NBStrain formula has been bothering me for days.
I would say that New Business Strain is when most (or more-than-all) of your FY premium is going towards reserve and req'd capital increases. That said, I have a hard time interpreting NBStrain=DistrEarn(1)/Prem(1) in Atkinson.
1. It seems to me that NBStrain decreases as you tinker with a product to increase its new business strain. You increase reserve requirements, DistrEarn goes down, and NBStrain decreases. Conversely, a product with no expenses and no benefits payable has the highest possible NBStrain (= Prem*(1-tax)/Prem).
2. How do you interpret a value of NBStrain? "Uh oh -- NBStrain=0.5!" Obviously, it has some sort of use as a metric, but I can't figure out how to analyze it. (Unlike ROE, where you can say "Uh oh -- ROE < WACC!")
I would say that New Business Strain is when most (or more-than-all) of your FY premium is going towards reserve and req'd capital increases. That said, I have a hard time interpreting NBStrain=DistrEarn(1)/Prem(1) in Atkinson.
1. It seems to me that NBStrain decreases as you tinker with a product to increase its new business strain. You increase reserve requirements, DistrEarn goes down, and NBStrain decreases. Conversely, a product with no expenses and no benefits payable has the highest possible NBStrain (= Prem*(1-tax)/Prem).
2. How do you interpret a value of NBStrain? "Uh oh -- NBStrain=0.5!" Obviously, it has some sort of use as a metric, but I can't figure out how to analyze it. (Unlike ROE, where you can say "Uh oh -- ROE < WACC!")