Isn't retained repair cost K ^ 1?

So for example,

k=0, retained repair cost = 0, Probability=0.4

k=1, retained repair cost = 1 Probability=0.3

k=2, retained repair cost = 1 Probability=0.2

k=3, retained repair cost = 1 Probability=0.1

What can't we say the expected retained repair cost is E(K ^ 1)=0.6 for each factory since

E(K)= 1 = E(K ^ 1) + E((K-1)+) and ((K-1)+)=0.4?

This is super confusing to me