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#111




Yes, the uniform in the first is important. But without knowing it was uniform, you couldn't do the problem at all. It would not necessarily be Beta. It could be almost anything. You know the distribution of the male mu and female mu at 60, but not at any other age. You wouldn't know that the ratio at every age was 60%, so you wouldn't know Beta.

#113




Quote:
By the way, the Uniform model has almost completely disappeared from LTAM exams since the change to the Dickson/Hardy/Waters textbook, Beta even moreso. What you see are problems using the Standard Ultimate Life Table or constant forces.
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Jim Daniel Jim Daniel's Actuarial Seminars www.actuarialseminars.com jimdaniel@actuarialseminars.com 
#114




Happy Pi day all!
I just finished up the material. Going to use the next 45ish days to go over practice problems and get a real grasp of it. I feel like I have a better understanding of the material at this point than I did with STAM when I was finished with the first go through. How's everybody else doing?!
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Former Disney World Cast Member, currently no idea what I'm doing "I think you should refrain from quoting yourself. It sounds pompous."  SweepingRocks 
#115




ELM 10, but I need to go faster!
This thing is a race. The more time left over for WA, the better. I may request the tiny tables on a billboard, since they slow me down most.
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Exams: VEE: FAP: Conferences: APC 
#116




For ASM manual 1st edition, 3rd printing, on page 633, Example 34C, Abar50 = 0.2 at force of interest 0.04, Abarx = 0.16 at force of interest 0.05, I tried to calculate mortality using formula Abarx=mu/(mu+force of interest) but the two Abarx yield two different mu’s. Is there a reason why? Am I doing anything wrong? Thanks

#118




What is the actual question?

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