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#101




I’m working on ASM manual 1st edition 3rd printing, on page 852, section 46.3.3 stepwise calculations, the first part and third part of the solution, why is the force of mortality used for state 0 to state 2 u01, and state 0 to state 1 u02? Shouldn’t it be the other way around? Thanks

#104




Quote:
My plan is to solely focus on getting through the remaining lessons by April 1, hopefully at the very latest, and then do practice problems. This means doing nothing but lesson videos and hoping I retain/relearn material in the final month. Going to be tough and I am not too confident, but if nothing else, should be in a good position for Oct sitting..
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#105




For ASM manual 1st edition 3rd printing, on page 1263, in the solution for Quiz 661, why are withdrawals at time 3 and withdrawals at time 4 not subtracted from the risk set at those times? I thought withdrawals at the time of deaths do count in the risk set? Thanks!

#109




Can somebody explain the difference between these two problems.
3F01:33 S_0 for males is uniform(0,75) S_0 for females follows uniform(0,w) At age 60, the female force of mortality is 60% of the male force of mortality. In the solution, they use .6/15 = .04 and thus w = 25 for a female age 60. 55.14 of ASM 15th edition. Nonsmokers havea force of mortality equal to onehalf that of smokers of equal age. For nonsmokers, S_0 is uniform(0,75) (55) is a nonsmoker (65) is a smoker Calculate e_65:55 In this problem, the solution uses the fact that the female is a beta distribution with A = 2 and T =10. What is the difference in these two questions. When I first solved the first problem up above, I original thought it was a beta with A = .6 but couldn't get the right answer. When I solved the second one, I went to smokers being uniform with T = 5 (2/10 = 1/5).
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#110




Is it because the first problem specifically states that the survival distribution follows a uniform RV? Without that assumption, I would need to assume the distribution is Beta?
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