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#131




Would someone please explain the concept of “interest rate used for cash flows within a year in the profit test”? According to the solution, the premium paid at beginning of year is accumulated to the end of the year at that interest rate and then discounted back to issue at the discount rate. What’s the reason for the one year accumulation? Thanks!

#132




So let me get this straight, this notation: https://imgur.com/a/4j51oxs is calculated by integrating for t between 0 and 10 for tP75
But this notation: https://imgur.com/a/pmrJt3K is calculated almost like an endowment, where we find the expected lifetime for someone for the first 20 years, then we add the product of 20P40 and 20? Oh boy, I friggen love notation, not confusing at all
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Former Disney World Cast Member, currently no idea what I'm doing "I think you should refrain from quoting yourself. It sounds pompous."  SweepingRocks 
#134




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Prelims: VEE: FAP: 
#135




Hi! I'm done with the ASM's 75 chapters (that was long). To everyone who took LTAM/MLC before or is studying for this sitting, what is your study strategy concerning practice exams? How many problems do you do each day?
Also, is Adapt a good help for LTAM or do you focus only on previous exams? Thank you! 
#136




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Edit: OKAY I'm stupid, if it's the integral from 0 to 10, so at 10, it'll just be the probability of surviving 10 years, which is inclusive to everyone surviving past 10 years! I understand! Gandalf, you're a wizard!
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Former Disney World Cast Member, currently no idea what I'm doing "I think you should refrain from quoting yourself. It sounds pompous."  SweepingRocks 
#137




ASM Manual, PE 2, WA 5
On part b of WA #5 of the second practice exam in the ASM Manual, the solution uses a multiple decrement mortality rate q(50)= 0.592%.
Where does this value come from? It is not explicitly given in the problem at the solution does not show how to come up with the value. Thank you. 
#139




Can anyone explain why for Question 15 of the 2018 Exam LTAM MC, we would subtract 1/2 x (1  nEx) for the third step in the SOA solutions. Does it have anything to do with the fact that this is a continuous temporary annuity? If so, an explanation would be appreciated.
I also took a look at Guo's solution to Question 15 and fail to see how he could say the answer is A from what he did. His solution is in here: http://deeperunderstandingfastercalc...018_MC_sol.pdf
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#140




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