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#1




Future Value Annuity Due
I'm not quite too familiar with this notation. Observe the following:
I assume that the latter (the one without (m)) refers to: Am I correct in this assumption? If so, how can I actually answer the problem? How do you write the former in terms of the latter (referring to the two values in the image)? I can write the former as another sum, but I'm unsure how to write it in terms of the second value (the one without the (m)). 
#2




No

#3




Quote:
I think that the current textbook does not introduce the s notation for actuarial accumulated value.
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#4




You're right, it doesn't. So, in the problem, do you think it's wanting me to write the former as a function of the latter? Or can I decompose the latter into the ratio you mentioned and then go from there? I'm not really sure how to do the problem.

#5




You need a mortality assumption. Does it say anything about UDD?

#6




As stated, it's impossible to know what the problemposer had in mind. I'd write the s as an a over 40E25 and surrender. Without knowing whether you were to assume UDD or use Woolhouse or whatever, there little more to d0 unless he poser wants you to write out the a as a sum. Where did you encounter this?
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Jim Daniel Jim Daniel's Actuarial Seminars www.actuarialseminars.com jimdaniel@actuarialseminars.com 
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