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Bridge Sub-Forums: Frequency and Severity

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  #1  
Old 08-07-2017, 02:12 PM
kmbrunskill kmbrunskill is offline
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Default Hands from my life

You hold

AQTx
Jx
AQT9x
Tx

Bidding goes pass - pass - you open 1D.

Partner responds 1H.

What is your rebid?

Both vulnerable, matchpoints.

Spoiler:

I really wanted to rebid 1NT. Partner is a passed hand, I have two sets of AQT that I want them to lead into. Plus I probably get a spade lead if I bid 1NT. I wussed out and stuck to the 'rules' and said 1S.

Does your decision change at IMPs or different vulnerability? My logic was I wanted the 120, not 110, and almost certainly my partner is just going to bid 1NT and wrongside this contract anyway.

Does your decision change if partner is not a passed hand?
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  #2  
Old 08-07-2017, 03:34 PM
Klaymen Klaymen is offline
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What happens when partner has

Jxxx
AQxx
xxx
xx

Now which contract do you want to be in?

I am ALWAYS bidding 1 for the simple reason that I can equal or beat the field if I can at least get to the normal contract that other sane individuals are getting to.
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  #3  
Old 08-08-2017, 12:25 PM
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mathmajor mathmajor is offline
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I've been in plenty contracts where we play 1NT because of seven card fits, end up having no control in say clubs (like Klaymen's example) and lost 5 tricks off the top - where the suit makes more tricks.

1NT is 1 no-chance because if either defender has a suit (or even an honor sequence like KQJ) to establish, a) they and their partner have entries, b) the communication between them is hard to disrupt (less likely to have a lop-sided suit split if neither have bid their suit), c) your suits are probably broken or you have communication issues with dummy (e.g. impossible to finesse)..., d) it's super easy to finesse you with dummy being so weak

In my (limited) experience making 1NT work is a lot of luck - a good side suit fit, misdefense, 3-3 splits, something.

Am I off base?
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Last edited by mathmajor; 08-08-2017 at 12:28 PM..
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Old 08-08-2017, 02:58 PM
kmbrunskill kmbrunskill is offline
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I think both of you are right
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Old 08-09-2017, 11:18 PM
kmbrunskill kmbrunskill is offline
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LHO opens 1H, P doubles, passed to you holding

xxx
AQTxx
Jxx
xx

Match points and all are white

What do you do?

Spoiler:

1NT was making. But would you pass and leave it in? I was so tempted. It was also a new partnership and I don't know if she is one of those heathens who takeout doubles with a void. (Heathens is a joke. Ive just met some people who swear by never doing it with a void).

Last edited by kmbrunskill; 08-09-2017 at 11:22 PM..
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Old 08-10-2017, 07:30 AM
oirg oirg is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kmbrunskill View Post
LHO opens 1H, P doubles, passed to you holding

xxx
AQTxx
Jxx
xx

Match points and all are white

What do you do?

Spoiler:

1NT was making. But would you pass and leave it in? I was so tempted. It was also a new partnership and I don't know if she is one of those heathens who takeout doubles with a void. (Heathens is a joke. Ive just met some people who swear by never doing it with a void).
1N
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  #7  
Old 08-10-2017, 08:45 AM
Steve White Steve White is offline
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On the first, 1S since chances spades are best are high enough to outweigh other considerations. Also, what Klaymen said about expecting to do well if contract is normal.

On the second, 1NT. I would freely make a takeout double with a void, by the way. Chances that double should be passed out, even if I were known to have at least one of their suit, are very low, and it would usually be better to get all three suits into play than overcall in perhaps a weak 5-card suit with 2 4-card alternatives.
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Old 08-10-2017, 10:32 AM
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mathmajor mathmajor is offline
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I'll double with a fairly low-strength hand if it has a void in the opp suit. My partners know pretty well I do this. I'm guessing with the hand layout you and your P have three seven-card fits but 1NT is a great choice expecting the H lead.

I always cringe when P bids xNT over my "shape" takeouts but sometimes that's the best alternative. Always advise in that case to have 2 stops in the suit at 2NT or 3NT. 1NT doesn't matter... you're losing 5-7 tricks somewhere usually...
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Old 08-10-2017, 11:48 PM
kmbrunskill kmbrunskill is offline
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I actually takeout double with a void too.. haha.

let's say your P takeout doubles and RHO bids on the 1 level.

Do you still say 1NT with a 6-9 pt hand or do you require more? I think the fear of p opening with 'shape' means I'd want more. pretend I have mild stoppers in their suits.

Thoughts?
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Old 08-16-2017, 05:00 PM
kmbrunskill kmbrunskill is offline
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MPs vs IMPs question

Doing some review of "The play of the Hand" pg 87

Watson writes this book in an imp context.

I think for the sake of the discussion assume the bidding was uninterrupted.

Dummy holds
85
A92
54
AKJ963

Declarer holds
A6
QJT6
AK7632
Q

Defender leads K spades

At imps this is an easy play. But at MPs I wonder. Everyone should be in 3NT. Does it make sense to take the first spade and play for 13 tricks by taking the heart finesse? Contract guaranteed to go down if it's off unless spades are 8-1 which seems highly unlikely.

What is your MP strategy here? And, I'm assuming it changes if you are in a riskily bid 3NT that you can make safely?
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