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#1
10-23-2007, 08:11 PM
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Asset Shares
I am really confused on this topic.
Is the asset share at time zero always equal to zero? If not, then under what condition/s it is equal to zero? Thanks. 
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#2
10-24-2007, 08:06 AM
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From my understanding, unless stated otherwise, the Asset Share equals zero at time zero just like a benefit or expense reserve.
__________________
How to explain actuarial exams to someone else... Good Einstein quote - "One had to cram all this stuff into one's mind for the examinations, whether one liked it or not. This coercion had such a deterring effect on me that, after I had passed the final examination, I found the consideration of any scientific problems distasteful to me for an entire year."
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#3
10-24-2007, 03:49 PM
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#4
10-25-2007, 11:13 AM
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The Bowers textbook clearly states that the asset share at time-0 need NOT be 0. Unfortunatley, exam writers have not always noticed this fact and so the questions often require you to assume it is 0. This isbeing corrected on the revised sample questions.
Jim Daniel
__________________
Jim Daniel Jim Daniel's Actuarial Seminars www.actuarialseminars.com jimdaniel@actuarialseminars.com
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