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#1
10-23-2007, 08:11 PM
 siomai_lover Member Join Date: Jul 2007 Location: Martingale Road, besides SOA office Studying for Life! Favorite beer: Carabao's Milk Posts: 197
Asset Shares

I am really confused on this topic.

Is the asset share at time zero always equal to zero?
If not, then under what condition/s it is equal to zero?

Thanks.
#2
10-24-2007, 08:06 AM
 colby2152 Note Contributor SOA Join Date: Feb 2006 Location: Virginia Studying for FA, GH Core College: PSU '07 Favorite beer: Oskar Blues Old Chub Scotch Ale Posts: 4,177

From my understanding, unless stated otherwise, the Asset Share equals zero at time zero just like a benefit or expense reserve.
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How to explain actuarial exams to someone else...

Good Einstein quote - "One had to cram all this stuff into one's mind for the examinations, whether one liked it or not. This coercion had such a deterring effect on me that, after I had passed the final examination, I found the consideration of any scientific problems distasteful to me for an entire year."
#3
10-24-2007, 03:49 PM
 kamek85 Member Join Date: Jun 2006 Posts: 1,961

#4
10-25-2007, 11:13 AM
 Jim Daniel Member SOA Join Date: Jan 2002 Location: Davis, CA College: Wabash College 1962 (!) Posts: 1,756

The Bowers textbook clearly states that the asset share at time-0 need NOT be 0. Unfortunatley, exam writers have not always noticed this fact and so the questions often require you to assume it is 0. This isbeing corrected on the revised sample questions.

Jim Daniel
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