Difference between IPMF & PMF (Graves & Castillo)

[GiCAS]

What is the difference between IPMF and PMF? The explanation on page 642 of the paper is vague ("An IMPF is the discount implied for a particular coverage written on a package policy that is rated with a given PMF"). An example would be helpful. Thanks.

[src4sd]

My understanding is that PMF is that actual discount that was applied when pricing, i.e. if liability coverage alone would be $100 and property coverage alone would be $100, and if PMF is .9 (or 10% credit), then the insured would pay $180. In contrast, the IPMF is an artificial number created to make the loss experience of the two groups equal. For example, if you are analyzing loss experience and find that those who purchase monoline liability coverage have a pure premium of $100 and those who purchase liability coverage as part of a package have a liability pure premium of $85, then you set the IPMF to .85, regardless of what was actually charged in the past.

I am sure this explanation oversimplifies what is actually done, since the article refers to a section called "minimum bias procedure", which is not on the syllabus and my study guide from NEAS says "candidates rarely understand". So, I'm hoping this high level view is enough.