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#1
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Can anyone explain question 8? thanks in advance, the solution to it is extremely confusing.
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#2
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They do explain that really weird. I think it's because SOA, doesn't like to use a normal of a negative number. This is my explanation:
S=S(0) and K=S(0)e^(rt). This means that PV(K)=S. Var[lnS(t)]=.4t, this implies that volatility=sqrt(.4) Because PV(K)=S, d1=(.4/2)*10/(2)=1. Because sqrt(.4*10)=2. d2=-1 Black-Scholes holds true, so Call = S(0)*N(d1)- S(0)*e^(rt)*e^(-rt)*N(d2) Call= S(0)* [N(d1)-N(d2)] Call= 100*[.8413-.1587] Call=68.26 I hope that helps. |
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#3
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I had no idea that that equation implied the volatility. How did you solve for d1? i'm not sure I understand that either. do we just assume r = 0? |
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#4
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Quote:
ln[S(0)/(S(0)*e^(rt)]+rt =ln[S(0)/(S(0)*e^(rt)*e^(-rt)] = ln[S(0)*e^(rt)/(S(0)*e^(rt)] =ln[S(0)/(S(0)]+rt-rt. That's basically, four ways to write the beginning part of d1 and they all equal 0. We aren't assuming r=0, it's just that r gets cancelled, because PV(K)=S. Since that equals 0, d1=[0+(.4/2)*10]/[sqrt(.4)*sqrt(10)]=1. I hope that helps. |
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#5
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thank you very much bjz
for question 14, is it even necessary to mention that it is a straddle? i don't even know what it is... |
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#6
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It would be if we were expected to know the typs of options and what they are comprised of, and they didn't tell the payoffs |
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#7
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for future knowledge, is that what a straddle is? something that pays the absolute value?
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#8
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A purchased straddle is made of a purchased call and a purchased put, both with the same strike. It is a bet on volatility; it pays off if the stock price moves far from the strike. (it is V shaped)
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#9
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alright, I'm not sure if anyone wants to help me out on this. I'm basically asking you to play teacher.
I am looking at #13. I completely understand the solution. However, I am looking through the ASM model and see that Mr. Weishaus has his own solutions. He did #13 a different way. In the first line after the "Then solving for r*", I don't understand where he gets the .9321 e^(r-.05)... from. I know where the .9321 comes from. Why do they use that? And what makes it equal to "A"? and why r-.05? Thanks in advance to anyone who understands this. I know I can always use the other solution, but I'm curious as to this. |
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#10
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Dude, its given in the problem Let P(r,t,T) denote the price at time t of $1 to be paid with certainty at time T, t≤T, if the short rate at time t is equal to r. For a Vasicek model you are given: P(0.04, 0, 2)= 0.9445 P(0.05,1, 3)= 0.9321 P(r*, 2, 4)= 0.8960 Calculate r* the price using vasicek has the form P(r,t,T) = A(t,T)*e^-B(t,T)*r |
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