![]() |
|
|
|||||||
| FlashChat | Actuarial Discussion | Preliminary Exams | CAS/SOA Exams | Cyberchat | Around the World | Suggestions |
D.W. Simpson and Company -- Actuary Salary
Surveys |
![]() |
|
|
Thread Tools | Display Modes |
|
#1
|
||||
|
||||
|
suppose AMIT < RIT or RIT > AMIT = why is either sitution not optimal?
what is the taxation rule? Does the insurer pay the maximum of the two? (this is in a paper - which one btw?) |
|
#2
|
||||
|
||||
|
Quote:
It's all in the taxable income paper. |
|
#3
|
||||
|
||||
|
so case AMIT > RIT
if this is true insurer can generate more taxable income and avoid ax on it got it if RIT > AMIT then insurer can generate more tax free income and get away without paying tax on most of it. thanks |
![]() |
| Thread Tools | |
| Display Modes | |
|
|