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#2
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This is a guess but it would seem that y would be binomial (n, pp*).
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#3
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Suppose you flip n coins, each of which is heads with probability p. Then X is the number of heads. Saying that (Y | X=x)~Bin(x, p*) means that we then flip X new coins, each of which is heads with probability p*, and Y is the number of heads on that second round. Then Y~Bin(n, pp*) because each original flip results in heads on the second round with probability pp*.
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#4
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Quote:
I passed P in May mainly through your well explained concepts... |
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