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#1
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There is a fomula that goes like this..the one for generating interest rate trees
RL = Ro * e^(-2 * sigma) RH = Ro * e^(2 * sigma) for a 1yr jump..What happens if we have a half year jump?, do we multiply the Exponent by a factor of say 0.5 for half year jump, ie will: RH = Ro * e^(2 * sigma*0.5)? Thanks |
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#3
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To continue AG's explanation
R_H = R_L e^(-2 * sigma) where R_L will be given. The lowest rate in any given time period will be given and the "higher" rates can be determined using the above equation.
__________________
I am a scientist. I am sorry to disappoint you but I have never seen an elf or a troll. But who am I to exclude their existence? - Arni Bjoernsson You are stupid and evil and do not know you are stupid and evil. ... Dumb students are educated stupid. - timecube.com Usually while I'm reading, I'm actually thinking about...midgets riding toy horses - Roto |
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#4
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Not necessarily. You might have to calibrate the tree.
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#5
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Quote:
Regarding the underlying question though, if annual volatility is sigma, this is really saying that annual variance is sigma squared. Consequently, semiannual variance would be 1/2 sigma squared. Semianual volatility would be 1/sqrt(2) sigma. |
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#6
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Quote:
R_H = R_L e^(2 * sigma) |
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#7
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Quote:
__________________
I am a scientist. I am sorry to disappoint you but I have never seen an elf or a troll. But who am I to exclude their existence? - Arni Bjoernsson You are stupid and evil and do not know you are stupid and evil. ... Dumb students are educated stupid. - timecube.com Usually while I'm reading, I'm actually thinking about...midgets riding toy horses - Roto |
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#8
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Quote:
does this model hold for interest rates too? I have seen this model (with root t) only for stock prices.. Last edited by Still_On_Diet; 04-30-2005 at 01:30 AM.. |
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