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Finance - Investments Sub-forum: Non-Actuarial Personal Finance/Investing

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  #1  
Old 06-09-2006, 11:17 AM
Olivia Olivia is offline
 
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Default ALM question

Any one here can give me some advice on how to calculate market value of liability cash flows that used in Duration/Convexity stuff. Do you use any specific software?

I work for a small company who is a little behind in ALM area, and I don't have any prior experience too except those lists from Course 6.
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Old 06-09-2006, 12:22 PM
chapman_kolmogorov chapman_kolmogorov is offline
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Find the Market Value of the Capital, then subtract it from the Market Value of the Assets.
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Old 06-09-2006, 12:39 PM
Olivia Olivia is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chapman_kolmogorov
Find the Market Value of the Capital, then subtract it from the Market Value of the Assets.
Thanks for reply. Maybe this is too silly, but what is Capital? I'm working on a line of existing business, and want to compare duration of asset and liability. But I'm not very confident on the way our software calculates MV of liability. Basically it uses a discount rate equal to short-term Treasury + OAS. And the OAS is derived from asset portfolio.
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Old 06-12-2006, 04:01 AM
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Sherwin Sherwin is offline
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You could make cash flow testing(CFT) for the liability product and use the cash flows resulting from the CFT model to match A/L duration.
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Old 06-12-2006, 08:01 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sherwin
You could make cash flow testing(CFT) for the liability product and use the cash flows resulting from the CFT model to match A/L duration.
No you can't do that.

You need to generate arbitrage free yield curves in order to get market values. Regarding software consider that the model has two parts. First is the model office that models decrements, credited interest etc. Any actuarial model will do. Next is the economic model. As previously mentioned you'll need a yield curve generator that is suited for the purpose. If your software doesn't actually calculate the market value you could easily write a piece of code to do that.


Partner with your investment department, they should be able to help. They're probably already expert in this type of analysis and frankly they're usually much smarter than actuaries.
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Last edited by Jack; 06-12-2006 at 08:07 AM..
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Old 06-12-2006, 09:11 AM
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Smarter than actuaries? That's unpossible!!
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  #7  
Old 06-12-2006, 09:59 AM
Olivia Olivia is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack
No you can't do that.

You need to generate arbitrage free yield curves in order to get market values. Regarding software consider that the model has two parts. First is the model office that models decrements, credited interest etc. Any actuarial model will do. Next is the economic model. As previously mentioned you'll need a yield curve generator that is suited for the purpose. If your software doesn't actually calculate the market value you could easily write a piece of code to do that.


Partner with your investment department, they should be able to help. They're probably already expert in this type of analysis and frankly they're usually much smarter than actuaries.
I agree with Jack that we can't use CFT. Because for the calculation of Duration you need to shift yield curve up and down. So basically you will need to calculate MV under 3 sets of interest scenairos, that's not something CFT can give.

We do have a interest generator here. And according to my knowledge from course 6, the best way to calculate liability MV would be use a discount rate = spot rate + OAS. Say if we can get spot rate curve from the current yield curve, how to decide the OAS? I feel Investments won't be helpful in this part.
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Old 06-12-2006, 12:45 PM
chapman_kolmogorov chapman_kolmogorov is offline
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The treasury plus OAS approach can't be correct. The OAS is relevant to the assets but not the liabilities. In order to use that approach you need the required spread on liabilities.

Getting back to your question: what is the market value of capital?

It is the present value of distributable earnings discounted at the cost of capital. The cost of capital is a weighted average required returns of capital sources (e.g. debt and equity). The required returns are composed of a risk premium and a risk free rate and should vary with the short rate over the life of the projection.
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Old 06-12-2006, 01:12 PM
Olivia Olivia is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chapman_kolmogorov
The treasury plus OAS approach can't be correct. The OAS is relevant to the assets but not the liabilities. In order to use that approach you need the required spread on liabilities.

Getting back to your question: what is the market value of capital?

It is the present value of distributable earnings discounted at the cost of capital. The cost of capital is a weighted average required returns of capital sources (e.g. debt and equity). The required returns are composed of a risk premium and a risk free rate and should vary with the short rate over the life of the projection.
Chapman, do you have any paper/book handy explains this approach? I may need to do more reading to be able to understand this.

Thanks!
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  #10  
Old 06-12-2006, 06:22 PM
sunman sunman is offline
 
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I work in ALM. You need a Monte Carlo term structure model to calculate the OAS (unless you're just using a simple binomial, I guess). Also, why are you using:

(short-term Treasury) + OAS

and not using the whole Treasury curve? It is much better to use the whole Treasury yield curve, right?

How are you calculating your OAS?

Last edited by sunman; 06-12-2006 at 06:42 PM..
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